sequences and series

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jverzani
2025-08-14 19:08:41 -04:00
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@@ -421,6 +421,125 @@ We want to just say $F'(x)= e^{-x}$ so $f(x) = e^{-x}$. But some care is needed.
Finally, at $x=0$ we have an issue, as $F'(0)$ does not exist. The left limit of the secant line approximation is $0$, the right limit of the secant line approximation is $1$. So, we can take $f(x) = e^{-x}$ for $x > 0$ and $0$ otherwise, noting that redefining $f(x)$ at a point will not effect the integral as long as the point is finite.
## Application to series
In this application, we compare a series to a related integral to decide convergence or divergence of the series.
:::{.callout-note appearance="minimal"}
#### The integral test
Consider a continuous, monotone decreasing function $f(x)$ defined on some interval of the form $[N,\infty)$. Let $a_n = f(n)$ and $s_n = \sum_{k=N}^n a_n$.
* If $\int_N^\infty f(x) dx < \infty$ then the partial sums converge.
* If $\int_N^\infty f(x) dx = \infty$ then the partial sums diverge.
:::
By the monotone nature of $f(x)$, we have on any interval of the type $[i, i+1)$ for $i$ an integer, that $f(i) \geq f(x) \geq f(i+1)$ when $x$ is in the interval. For integrals, this leads to
$$
f(i) = \int_i^{i+1} f(i) dx
\geq \int_i^{i+1} f(x) dx
\geq \int_i^{i+1} f(i+1) dx = f(i+1)
$$
Now if $N$ is an integer we have
$$
\int_N^\infty f(x) dx = \sum_{i=N}^\infty \int_i^{i+1} f(x) dx
$$
This translates to this bound
$$
\sum_{i=N}^\infty f(i)
\leq \int_N^\infty f(x) dx
\leq \sum_{i=N}^\infty f(i+1) = \sum_{i=N+1}^\infty f(i)
$$
If the integral converges, the first inequality implies the series converges; if the integral diverges, the second inequality implies the series diverges.
### Example
The $p$-series test is an immediate consequence, as the integral
$$
\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x^p} dx
$$
converges when $p>1$ and diverges when $p \leq 1$.
### Example
Let
$$
a_n = \frac{1}{n \cdot \ln(n) \cdot \ln(\ln(n))^2}
$$
Does $\sum a_n$ *converge*?
We use `SymPy` to integrate:
```{julia}
@syms x::real
f(x) = 1 / (x * log(x) * log(log(x))^2)
integrate(f(x), (x, 3^2, oo))
```
That this is finite shows the series converges.
---
The integral of a power series can be computed easily for some $x$:
:::{.callout-note appearance="minimal"}
### The integral of a power series
Suppose $f(x) = \sum_n a_n (x-c)^n$ is a power series about $x=c$ with radius of convergence $r > 0$. [Then](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Power_series#Differentiation_and_integration) the limits of the integral and the sum can be switched around when $x$ is within the radius of convergence:
$$
\begin{align*}
\int f(x) dx
&= \int \sum_n a_n(x-c)^n dx\\
&= \sum_{n=0}^\infty \int a_n(x-c)^n dx\\
= \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n \frac{(x-c)^{n+1}}{n+1}
\end{align*}
$$
The radius of convergence of this new power series is also $r$.
:::
This geometric series has a well known value ($|r| < 1$):
$$
\frac{1}{1-r} = 1 + r + r^2 + \cdots
$$
This gives rise to
$$
\ln(1 - r) = -(r + r^2/2 + r^3/3 + \cdots).
$$
The power series for $e^x$ is
$$
e^x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!}
$$
This has integral then given by
$$
\int e^x dx = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}\frac{1}{n!}
= \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}
= \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!}
= e^x - 1
$$
The $-1$ is just a constant so the antiderivative of $e^x$ is $e^x$.
## Questions